I was reading this prayer made by Jesus to God in Chapter 17 and came to this verse. My question is this. Does this verse mean that the whole prayer includes all believers or does it mean that from 20 to the end includes all belivers or is this verse only talking about the couple of verses before? This verse puts a question mark in my head because of verse 9 (same chapter). When we get to verse 9 we see that he is praying for the disciples only. But if verse 20 includes all of the prayer, then we can go back and apply it to ourselves but if verse 20 doesn't include the whole prayer, we can't apply that to us. This doesn't mean that I question the doctrine of election. I believe that is clear through out scripture.
Thanks fam!
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